Spread of Industrialization (History)

[Fatalbone]

   I am looking for information on spread of industry in the world. Would you guys share your knowledge with me ? Basicly I know how industrial revolution and why it happened in England and such but I am interested in "late bloomers" like Sweden, Spain, italy, Norway and Denmark. How did it started in France (no peasant exodus fueling labor exploit) or in Germany is a nice question too. They were to a degree enemies of England but still the internetz says that it was financed by England. How come ?.
   
    I would prefer more realistic look in history which includes socio-economic classes and political conflicts but if you have the nationalistic rethoric thats ok too.
   
    And for my Balkanian friends how their nationalistic history expain most of the industrial expenditure and infrastructure of the Ottoman empire is on Balkans?(Consantrated on greek macedonia, western trakia and eastern rumelia).
   
    I am trying to understand why Ottoman Empire could not manage to industrialize eventhough it had a lot of trade contact with France and England and actually had a sound economy till crimean war.

    My current "hypothesis" is There was major spending on industry and education on balkans fueled by loans from British and other Europeans. But with Balkan Wars most important region of the Empire(after Istanbul) is lost and economy of the empire took a big hit. I think like this because when you look at the late history of empire this region is where all revoulutionary ideas came (jön turks, first constitution, seconds constitution, ittihat ve terakki and Ataturk). It had the most modern and the second biggest city Seloniki and the fact that refugees that run from those countries got influental places in empire and republic although they had literally nothing when they came at first.

   Anyway sorry for textwall and thanks for your future contribitions

[delling]

Don't know enough to say with any authority, but...

Revolution generally comes from change, right? Turkey, the center of the Byzantine Empire, had been the same for 1500 years! That's evolution, not revolution. It takes a big change of operation to spark revolution -- like the Romans invading Europe, or England conquering a quarter of the world, or Germany starting a world war.

Revolution has to be inspired by SOMETHING, and I imagine the British Empire had plenty of inspiration up until the fall of the empire, between 1920 and 1950 (or whatever the exact dates were).

And now, revolution comes from the USA, and other 'new' nations. Remember, some nations were almost rebuilt after the the World Wars -- Germany, Italy, Japan, France -- all major economic powers today.

But again, I am just thinking out loud, my actual knowledge of history is pretty weak, thanks to some bad schooling in that area

[Archz]

In Norway I would say that it started for real during the second world war. Norway wasn't very advanced, but after Germanys invasion they started to upgrade our infrastructure with great speed.

And after ww2, Norway (and many other countries) started recieving financial aid as a result of the The Marshall Plan. This gave many of the Western European countries a great boost, and it started to seperate us from Eastern Europe which was not allowed by the Soviet Union to recieve such help.

With the increasing focus on science and manufacturing, we started to move from agriculture to industry.

Keywords for the text you're writing would probably World war, as Delling mencioned, the race for dominance after ww2, aid from USA etc etc..

[Fatalbone]

  Turkey gets marshal aid too but it is generally considered as something inhibit industry by increasing demand for american products and put turkey in the US orbit. Although it could solve the capital problem.

For an industry to thrive you need (in a relatively free market)

accessibility to raw materials

capital(lots of money)

a market you can sell your products (demand for your products and not many people selling them)

cheap worker labor

infrastructure(cheaper to carry materials and products)

In the example of china(old before ww1) even if you have those if the initial cost of machinery+maintinance is more than the cheap labor industrilization is not feasable

 How can semi/pre-industrialized countries industrialize when there is USA producing everything much cheaper and better than they could do ? people would just buy their products. (I am assuming marshall plan makes you lower the tariff barriers). Not rhetoric questions I don't know the answers